Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

There's no rule.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

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What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

What causes tension between liberals and conservatives? Is it purely based on ideological differences or are there other factors at play?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How should one handle a situation where they suspect their partner of cheating, but their partner denies it and claims it is all in their head?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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